In one of Cilla's books she claims Brian had AIDS. That's gotta be something she dreamed up, because AIDS didn't even exist in the 60's or even the 70's! They named it when it was discovered in 1983. The very first cases were in the U.S. in 1981, and were called "gay syndrome."
Here's a very good page on the origins of HIV -- most likely a species crossover mutation of SIV.
Okay, reading on, I must partially recant. I see at Avert's History of Aids 1981-86 page this information:
"We do not know how many people developed AIDS in the 1970s, or indeed in the years before. Neither do we know, and we probably never will know, where the AIDS virus HIV originated (see our origins page for some theories). But what we do know is:
"The dominant feature of this first period was silence, for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) was unknown and transmission was not accompanied by signs or symptoms salient enough to be noticed. While rare, sporadic case reports of AIDS and sero-archaeological studies have documented human infections with HIV prior to 1970, available data suggest that the current pandemic started in the mid- to late 1970s. By 1980, HIV had spread to at least five continents (North America, South America, Europe, Africa and Australia). During this period of silence, spread was unchecked by awareness or any preventive action and approximately 100,000-300,000 persons may have been infected."
But, as promiscuous as Brian was, it was still unlikely he contracted AIDS at all during his short life. He was diagnosed with the glandular fever weeks before the 1966 American tour.
However, wouldn't it certainly be a totally sucky milestone/achievement if Brian Epstein was one of the very first people to contract AIDS? I wonder -- if for some reason they were compelled to exhume his remains, would there be a way to tell?
Just another strange musing to toss in the ponder pot.
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